Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 03:37
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
I always feel very tired after I do some exercises, even after a night's sleep. What's the problem?
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Can you list every album you have ever listened to?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.